If you owned the home pre-marriage and she did not contribute in a material way to its mortgage whle you and she were married, then she should have no claim to it. If she did make a substantial contribution to paying for it for foury years, when while she would most likely not get an ownership interest in the home, she would likely be entitled to reimbursement of or compensation for what she paid (e.g. a larger share of money or other assets).
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